A list of Clinical Pharmacy MCQ with Answer



MCQ 1. What is the primary focus of Phase 3 Clinical testing?

  1. The collection and analysis of highly specific efficacy end-point data
  2. How to manage costs.
  3. The optimal range of effective dosage.
  4. The analysis of data results from the small-subset target population

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 2. Carcinogenicity and Genotoxicity study is a ______ aspect of ICH guidelines.

  1. Safety guidelines 
  2. Efficiency guidelines
  3. QSEM guidelines
  4. All of these

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 3. Pharmacovigilance is a part of _____?

  1. ICH E1 guidelines 
  2. ICH E2 guidelines 
  3. ICH E2 (A-F) guidelines
  4. ICH E3 guidelines
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 4. Capsulated Form of Bacteria are _______?
  1. Symbiotic
  2. Useful
  3. Virulent
  4. Avirulent
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 5. A fluid present in golay cell is _______?
  1. Xenon
  2. Water vapour
  3. Chlorofluorocarban
  4. Nitrogen dioxide
Right answer is (1)


MCQ 6. DNA does not contain ______?
  1. Thymin
  2. Uracil
  3. Adenine
  4. Deoxyribose
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 7. The most common angle for intramuscular injection is ______?
  1. 45 degrees
  2. 60 degrees
  3. 90 degrees
  4. 10 degrees
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 8. What describes the action of the body on the drug?
  1. Pharmacodynamics
  2. Pharmacokinetics
  3. Microbiology
  4. Physiology
  5. All of the above
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 9. What is the entry of drugs into the plasma?
  1. Absorption
  2. Distribution
  3. Elimination
  4. Metabolism
  5. All of the above
Right answer is (1)


MCQ 10. Which of the following is an advantage of sublingual administration?
  1. Rapid absorption
  2. Convenient
  3. Avoid harsh GI environment 
  4. Avoid first pass-metabolism
  5. All off the above
Right answer is (5)


MCQ 11. Which of the following routes have the highest bioavailability?
  1. Oral
  2. IM 
  3. IV
  4. SC
  5. None of the above
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 12. What is the fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation?
  1. Elimination
  2. Metabolism
  3. Drug displacement 
  4. Bioavailability
  5. Volume of distribution (Vd)
Right answer is (4)


MCQ 13. Which of the following conditions is not associated with ischemic heart disease :
  1. Angina pectoris
  2. Atherosclerosis
  3. Myocardial infraction
  4. Congestive heart disease
Right answer is (4)


MCQ 14. Which of the following are well-perfused tissues?
  1. Brain
  2. Skelatal
  3. Bone
  4. Adipose
  5. None of the above
Right answer is (1)


MCQ 15. Which of the following is prepared in exertional angina?
  1. Propranolol
  2. Digoxin
  3. Nitro glycerine
  4. Delitizian
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 16. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?
  1. Naloxone 
  2. Nitrite 
  3. Ca-EDTA 
  4. Dialysis
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 17. Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?
  1. Gastritis 
  2. Peptic Ulcers 
  3. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 
  4. Thalamus hypertrophy
Right answer is (4)


MCQ 18. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?
  1. Valproic acid 
  2. Quinidine 
  3. Isoniazid 
  4. Ethosuximide
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 19.  A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______?
  1. PPI
  2. ACE inhibitor 
  3. Antifungal 
  4. Beta agonist
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 20.  A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______?
  1. H2 blocker
  2. ACE inhibitor 
  3. Antifungal 
  4. Beta agonist
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 21. Drug used for prevention of influenza _____?
  1. Antiviral
  2. Vaccination 
  3. Antibiotic
  4. All of them
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 22. Food increase effect of ____?
  1. Aspirin
  2. Doxycycline
  3. Propranolol
  4. All of them
Right answer is (3)

MCQ 23. Example of pathological toxicity. ___?

  1. Carcinogenesis from chemotherapeutics
  2. Hepatic necrosis from acetaminophen
  3. Dry mouth of antidepressant
  4. All of them

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 24. Which one of the following can not be dispensed without prescription?
  1. Ibuprofen
  2. Doxycycline 
  3. Aspirin
  4. Bidacodyl
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 25. Plasma conc. of drug in all body is ___?
  1. Rate of absorption
  2. Rate of binding
  3. Rate of distribution
  4. Therapeutic volume
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 26. `Essential drugs’ are ____.
  1. Life saving drugs
  2. Drugs that meet the priority health care needs of the population
  3. Drugs that must be present in the emergency bag of a doctor
  4. Drugs that are listed in the pharmacopoia of a country
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 27. An 'orphan drug' is _____.
  1. A very cheap drug
  2. A drug which has no therapeutic use
  3. A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease
  4. A drug which acts on Orphanin receptors
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 28. Bioavailability of drug refers to _____.
  1. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form
  2. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose
  3. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces
  4. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites
Right answer is (1)


MCQ 29. If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is______.
  1. 100 L
  2. 80 L
  3. 60 L
  4. 50 L
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 30. High plasma protein binding _____.
  1. Increases volume of distribution of the drug
  2. Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
  3. Minimises drug interactions
  4. Generally makes the drug long acting
Right answer is (4)


MCQ 31. Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions?
  1. CYP 3A4
  2. CYP 2C9
  3. CYP 2E1
  4. CYP 1A2
Right answer is (1)


MCQ 32. Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its _____.
  1. Lipid solubility
  2. Plasma protein binding
  3. Degree of ionization
  4. Rate of tubular secretion
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 33. If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is ____.
  1. 0.5 L/hr
  2. 2.0 L/hr
  3. 5.0 L/hr
  4. 20 L/hr
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 34. If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its _____.
  1. Volume of distribution
  2. Plasma protein binding
  3. Lipid solubility
  4. Total body clearance
Right answer is (4)


MCQ 35. The loading dose of a drug is governed by its ____.
  1. Renal clearance
  2. Plasma half life
  3. Volume of distribution
  4. Elimination rate constant
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 36. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its _____.
  1. Safety
  2. Potency
  3. Efficacy
  4. Dose variability
Right answer is (1)


MCQ 37. The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to _____.
  1. Digoxin
  2. Salbutamol
  3. Propranolol
  4. Nifedipine
Right answer is (1)


MCQ 38. Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments ____.
  1. Levodopa and metoclopramide
  2. Furosemide and indomethacin
  3. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate
  4. Clonidine and chlorpromazine
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 39. Which of the following is a type B (unpredictable) adverse drug reaction ____.
  1. Side effect
  2. Toxic effect
  3. Idiosyncrasy
  4. Physical dependence
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 40. The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies _____.
  1. Serum sickness
  2. Anaphylactic shock
  3. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  4. Angioedema
Right answer is (1)


MCQ 41. The organ most sensitive to actions of atropine is ____.
  1. Gastric glands
  2. Salivary glands
  3. Urinary bladder muscle
  4. Heart
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 42. Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size ____.
  1. Amphetamine
  2. Prazosin
  3. Finasteride
  4. Goserelin
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 43. The following disease is worsened by propranolol _____.
  1. Glaucoma
  2. Raynaud’s disease
  3. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
  4. Parkinsonism
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 44. Histamine exerts the following actions except ____.
  1. Dilatation of large blood vessels
  2. Dilatation of small blood vessels
  3. Stimulation of isolated guineapig heart
  4. Itching
Right answer is (1)


MCQ 45. The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen antibody reaction is _____.
  1. Aspirin
  2. Procaine
  3. Morphine
  4. Sulfadiazine
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 46. Select the H1 antihistaminic which is used topically in the nose for allergic rhinitis _____.
  1. Loratadine
  2. Cetirizine
  3. Fexofenadine
  4. Azelastine
Right answer is (4)


MCQ 47. Select the ergot compound which is primarily used for dementia _____.
  1. Bromocriptine
  2. Ergotamine
  3. Codergocrine
  4. Methysergide
Right answer is (3)


MCQ 48. The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is ____.
  1. Precipitation of seizures
  2. Precipitation of psychosis
  3. Development of hypertension
  4. Coronary vasospasm
Right answer is (4)


MCQ 49. Which of the following drugs is most commonly used for prophylaxis of migraine ____
  1. Ergotamine
  2. Propranolol
  3. Methysergide
  4. Sumatriptan
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 50. Which of the following is an irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase _____.
  1. Aspirin
  2. Phenylbutazone
  3. Indomethacin
  4. Piroxicam
Right answer is (1)