A list of Pharma Quiz Online (Pharmacology)



MCQ 1. Hypertension resulting from an identifiable cause is called _____?

  1. Primary hypertension
  2. Essential hypertension
  3. Secondary hypertension
  4. Reflex techycardia

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 2. The drug which is administered into the auditory canal is called _____?

  1. OTC drug
  2. Otic drug
  3. Enteral drug
  4. None of these

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 3. Phototherapy is used to treat newborn with ____?

  1. Hyperglycemia
  2. Hyperbilirubinemia
  3. Azotemia
  4. Premature delivery

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 4. Which condition results from over secretion of growth hormone?

  1. Panhypopituitarism
  2. Addison's
  3. Acromegaly
  4. Diabetes

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 5. Which drug may be prescribed to treat hypothyroidism?

  1. Pegvisomant
  2. Insulin
  3. Desmopressin
  4. Levothyroxine

Right answer is (4)


MCQ 6. Anti-obesity agents (orlistat) work by _____?

  1. Inhibiting lipase
  2. Stimulating lipase
  3. Inhibiting glucagon
  4. Stimulating glucagon

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 7. The type of estrogen is primarily present in menopausal women _____?

  1. Estradiol
  2. Estrone
  3. Estriol
  4. Progesterone
Right answer is (2)


MCQ 8. Oral contraceptives can come with the following administration instructions _____?
  1. 84 days on, 7 days off
  2. 21 days on, 7 days off
  3. 30 days on, 7 days off
  4. 42 days on, 7 days off

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 9. Which of the following NSAIDs has greater inhibitory selectivity for COX-1 than COX-2?

  1. Flurbiprofen
  2. Indomethacin
  3. Diclofenac
  4. Celecoxib

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 10. NSAIDs combat fever by inhibiting which prostaglandin?

  1. Prostaglandin E2
  2. Prostaglandin I2
  3. Prostaglandin D2
  4. Prostaglandin F2

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 11. NSAIDs should be avoided in which group(s) of patients?

  1. Kidney disease
  2. Myocardial infarction
  3. Irritable bowel syndrome
  4. All of the above

Right answer is (4)


MCQ 12. NSAIDs increase the risk of CNS adverse effects when taken with which group of antibiotics?

  1. Macrolides
  2. Penicillins
  3. Aminoglycosides
  4. Quinolones

Right answer is (4)


MCQ 13. Which of the following NSAIDs is a selective COX-2 inhibitor?

  1. Indomethacin
  2. Meloxicam
  3. Etoricoxib
  4. Mefenamic acid

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 14. Paracetamol is an NSAID with a comparatively low anti-inflammatory effect compared to other NSAIDs.

  1. True
  2. False

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 15. Which of the following beta-blockers also has additional alpha-blocking activity?

  1. Nadolol
  2. Pindolol
  3. Labetalol
  4. Esmolol

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 16. Which of the following drugs can be used in cases of beta blocker overdose?

  1. Glucagon
  2. Flumazenil
  3. Deferoxamine
  4. Naloxone

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 17. Which of these beta-blockers is a Class III antiarrhythmic agent?

  1. Metoprolol
  2. Esmolol
  3. Sotalol
  4. Bucindolol

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 18. Which of the following beta-blockers has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)?

  1. Bisoprolol
  2. Timolol
  3. Pindolol
  4. Propanolol

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 19. Beta-blockers – aside from their cardiovascular indications – are also used in the treatment of which condition?

  1. Gout
  2. Glaucoma
  3. Reynaud’s phenomenon
  4. Asthma

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 20. Which of the following drugs is NOT an aminoglycoside?

  1. Streptomycin
  2. Neomycin
  3. Amikacin
  4. Azithromycin

Right answer is (4)


MCQ 21. Patient with ulcerative colitis ttt on cortison and mesalazine must use ____?

  1. Iron
  2. Vit B12
  3. Calcium
  4. None of them

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 22. In ovulation phase hormone which predominant?

  1. FSH
  2. Progesterone 
  3. LH
  4. All of them

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 23. Which of the following drug increase the incidince of BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)?

  1. Paracetamol
  2. Diclofenac
  3. Aspirin
  4. Chlorpheniramine

Right answer is (4)


MCQ 24. The dose of folic acid for non-pregnant women is_____?

  1. 400 mcg/day
  2. 700 mcg/day
  3. 900 mcg/day
  4. 1200 mcg/day

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 25. Which drug will be more absorbed in presence of Ranitidine?

  1. Warfarin
  2. Aspirin
  3. Triazolam
  4. Naproxen

Right answer is (4)


MCQ 26. Antibiotic used in community acquired pneumonia in hospitalization ____?

  1. Azithromycin
  2. Doxycycline
  3. Ceftriaxone and Azithromycin
  4. Moxifloxacin

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 27. What is the antidote for methotrexate toxicity?

  1. Leucovorin
  2. Naproxen
  3. Naloxon
  4. Vit K

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 28. Recommended Calcium dose for geriatric?

  1. 800 mg
  2. 600 mg
  3. 1200 mg
  4. 500 mg

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 29. Recommended Vit D3 dose for geriatric?

  1. 200 iu
  2. 600 iu
  3. 400 iu
  4. 300 iu

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 30. Gray baby syndrome caused by ____?

  1. Chloramphenicol
  2. Doxycycline 
  3. Amoxicillin
  4. Cefaclor

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 31. Red man syndrome caused by _____?

  1. Vancomycin
  2. Doxycycline 
  3. Cefpodixime
  4. Amoxicillin

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 32. Diphenoxylate and Loperamide are narcotics or Opioid agonists which are used as ____?

  1. Anti-inflammatory
  2. Anti-diarrheal
  3. Antipyretic
  4. Anticholinergic

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 33. Respiratory acodosis is causes by _____?

  1. CO2 retention
  2. O2 retention
  3. N retention
  4. All of them

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 34. Narcotic addiction is treated by _____?

  1. Methadone
  2. Naloxone
  3. Domperidone
  4. None of them

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 35. Drug of choice for pseudomonal aeroginosa is _____?

  1. Meropenem
  2. Penicillin
  3. Imepenim

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 36. Paracetamol fall in which category for pregnancy?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. X

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 37. Which of the following anesthetic cause cardiotoxicity?

  1. Lidocaine
  2. Bupivacaine
  3. Mepvicaine
  4. All of them

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 38. Emergency members should take the following vaccine to avoid noscomial infection?

  1. Influenza vaccine
  2. Meningitis
  3. Measles
  4. None of them

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 39. Dose in Iron defeciency anaemia is ____?

  1. 100 mg tid
  2. 212.5 mg tid
  3. 275 mg tid
  4. 325 mg bid

Right answer is (4)


MCQ 40. Cushing like syndrome is due to ___?

  1. Adrenal hyperplasia
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Adrenal hypoplasia
  4. Hyperthyroidism

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 41. Digitalis arrhythmia can be treated with ____?

  1. Phenytoin
  2. Quinidin
  3. Procainamide
  4. Propranolol

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 42. Which of the following used to counteract toxicity of a drug after 1 hr of ingesion?

  1. Enema water
  2. Cathartics
  3. Activated charcoal
  4. All of them

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 43. Which of the following decrease heart rate?

  1. Phenylephrine
  2. Reserpine
  3. Metoprolol
  4. Vasopressin

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 44. Which of the following is colloid solution?

  1. Albumin
  2. Ringer's solution
  3. Kerbs solution 
  4. None of them

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 45. Which of the following is released by bacterial cell wall during phagocytosis?

  1. Endotoxin
  2. Exotoxin
  3. Cytotoxin
  4. None of them

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 46. Early symptoms of Aspirin poisoning are ____?

  1. Lethargy & fatigue
  2. Throbbing headache & dizziness
  3. Fluid retention & hypertension 
  4. Ringing in the ears & blurred vision

Right answer is (4)


MCQ 47. Which metal used in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis?

  1. Gold
  2. Silver
  3. Copper
  4. All of them

Right answer is (1)


MCQ 48. What first line agent may be considered for an obese type 2?

  1. Insulin
  2. Metformin
  3. Repaglinid
  4. Glyburinid

Right answer is (2)


MCQ 49. To increase duration of lidocaine in anesthia used _____?

  1. Propranolol
  2. Succinyl chline
  3. Epinephrine 
  4. None of them

Right answer is (3)


MCQ 50. Which drug may used as anti-spasmodic?

  1. Baclofen
  2. Reserpine
  3. Amphetamine
  4. Propranolol

Right answer is (1)



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